CCNA Discovery 4 Module 7 Exam Answers version 4.0

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1.      A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

 

2.      While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

 

3.      Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

 

4.      What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer

 

5.      How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

 

6.      Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3

 

7.      Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.

• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

 

8.      What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated

 

9.      Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief

 

10.  Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

 

11.  Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

 

12.  A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma

 

13.  In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

 

14.  Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2

 

15.  Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

 

16.  Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

 

17.  Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

 

18.  Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics

 

19.  Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

 

20.  Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 6 Exam Answers version 4.0

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1.      A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.
• New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.
• A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.

 

2.      When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 1, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 2, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 1, when discontigous networks exist
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist

 

3.      Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# auto-summary
R3(config-router)# no version 2
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary

• Change the network statement on R3:
R3(config)# network 10.10.4.0
• Add the command:
R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

 

4.      What best describes a discontiguous network?
• combines several classfull networking address
• contains more than one route to a destination
• implements more than one routing protocol
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network

 

5.      Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.12/29
• 172.16.3.16/29
• 172.16.3.20/29
• 172.16.3.24/29
• 172.16.3.32/29

 

6.      A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.255.0
• /19
• /20
• 255.255.252.0
• /23
• /21

 

7.      What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
• 1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2
• 1080::0:1267:01A2
• 1080:::::1267.01A2

 

8.      How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128

 

9.      After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.
• RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

 

10.  Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.128.0
255.255.192.0
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0

 

11.  Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.96/27
• 172.16.50.97/27
• 172.16.50.98/27
• 172.16.50.99/27
• 255.255.255.0

 

12.  Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1

 

13.  Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
• The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.

 

14.  Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary

• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

 

15.  What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.
• Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server farm.
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
• Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are wireless.

 

16.  A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/20 head office
172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.17.1.0/22 sales
172.17.3.0/26 research
• 172.17.48.0/19 head office
172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.17.48.128/25 sales
172.17.48.0/26 research
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research
• 172.17.2.0/22 head office
172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.4.0/26 sales
172.17.4.128/25 research

 

17.  How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0/24

 

18.  What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization

• automatic summarization at classfull boundaries

 

19.  Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
• Only the initiating router sends its password using encrypted text when it first discovers a new router.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text only when they first learn of each other.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text each time they exchange update packets.

 

20.  Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
• Admin – 172.16.31.0
QA – 172.16.1.127
Development – 172.16.2.255
Sales – 172.16.32.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.255
QA – 172.16.1.255
Development – 172.16.3.255
Sales – 172.16.63.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.255
QA – 172.16.1.127
Development – 172.16.3.255
Sales – 172.16.63.255
• Admin – 172.16.31.0
QA – 172.16.1.255
Development – 172.16.2.255
Sales – 172.16.32.255

 

21.  Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.248

 

22.  An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

 

23.  Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.14.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.16.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 – 192.168.17.0/24

 

24.  Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Assign addresses to the access layer before any other layer.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
• Begin with the access layer network summary addresses and work to the edge.
• Plan the addressing scheme to meet the current minimum requirement needs.
• Implement statically assigned addresses to all hosts in the distribution layer first.

 

25.  Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/26
• 172.16.0.192/27
• 172.16.0.224/26
• 172.16.0.160/26
• 172.16.0.144/27

 

26.  A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• BGP
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

 

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 5 Exam Answers version 4.0

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1.      Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
• Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
• As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
• When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.
2.      What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution layer?
• It is limited to copper connections.
• It does not support QoS.
• It does not support voice VLAN capability.
• It does not support route summarization.
3.      When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
• business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
• location and placement of firewalls
• voice-level quality of service
• security policy requirements
4.      Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
• PoE
• VLANs
• high-density routing
• packet filtering
• rapidly converging routing protocols
QoS traffic classification and marking
5.      Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
• Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
• Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
• Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
• Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.
6.      Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
• type of routing protocols
• location of existing wired clients
• coverage
• position of MDF
7.      What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
• network layer functionality
• redundant power availability
• route summarization
SNMP
• switch clustering
• inter-VLAN routing
8.      A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
• Catalyst 4503 switches
• Cisco 1841 router
• Catalyst 6509 switches
• lightweight access points
• Catalyst 2960 switches
9.      Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
10.  Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
• Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
• Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
• Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router
11.  on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)
• voice VLAN capable switch
• autonomous AP
• PoE switch
• Cisco wireless LAN controller
• 2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
• lightweight access points
12.  What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
• dedicated
• cell switched
• packet switched
• circuit switched
13.  Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
• provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
• provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
• provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power
14.  What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
• provides QoS classification and marking
• implements a fast-converging routing protocol
• uses routed interconnections between devices
• aggregates traffic and performs route summarization
15.  When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
• securing the network devices
• implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
• applying security to resources accessed by internal users
• applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network
16.  What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
• VPNs
• high-bandwidth paths to servers
• redundancy
• wireless management
17.  What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
• hub
• router
• switch
• firewall appliance
18.  Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis
19.  Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
• availability
• performance
• scalability
• security
20.  What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
• providing PoE to the wireless clients
• distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
• serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN
21.  What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
• CIDR support
• fast convergence
• timed updates
• VLSM suppor
22.  A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization. The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm, although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years. What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
• virus attack
• internal attack
• Internet attack
• phishing attack
23.  Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?
• The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
24.  An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom in a downtown area. To update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a WAN connection to the headquarters that is located in the suburban area. The WAN connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which WAN service will provide the most economical approach to meet the requirement?
DSL
• ATM
• T1 line
• Frame Relay

25.  A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a T1 line?
• more secure
• flexible bandwidth
• shared media across the link
• efficiency with fixed length packet size

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 1 Exam Answer version 4.0

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1.      What are two mechanisms that provide redundancy for server farm implementations? (Choose two.)
• host intrusion prevention systems
• virtual private networks
• network intrusion prevention systems
• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
• Hot Standby Routing Protocol
2.      The ability to connect securely to a private network over a public network is provided by which WAN technology?
• DSL
• Frame Relay
• ISDN
• PSTN
• VPN
3.      Which three statements describe the functions of the Cisco hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
• Route summarization is not necessary at the core and distribution layers.
• The distribution layer is responsible for traffic filtering and isolating failures from the core.
• Two goals of the core layer are 100 percent uptime and maximizing throughput.
• The access layer provides a means of connecting end devices to the network.
• The distribution layer distributes network traffic directly to end users.
• The core layer usually employs a star topology.
4.       A network designer is creating a new network. The design must offer enough redundancy to provide protection against a single link or device failure, yet must not be too complex or expensive to implement. What topology would fill these needs?
• star
• full mesh
• partial mesh
• extended star
• hub and spoke
5.       Refer to the exhibit. If the firewall module has been correctly configured using best practices for network security, which statement is true about the security design for the network?
• Servers in the network are not protected from internal attacks.
• Servers in the DMZ are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Servers in the server farm are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Traffic from the external networks is not able to access the servers in the DMZ.
6.       Which statement is true about a DMZ in a traditional network firewall design?
• A DMZ is designed to provide service for external access but not for internal access.
• Servers in the DMZ provide limited information that can be accessed from external networks.
• User access to the DMZ from the Internet and the internal network usually is treated the same way.
• All servers in the enterprise network should be located in a DMZ because of enhanced security measures.
7.       What network connection would be most cost efficient while still meeting the security and connectivity needs of this teleworker?
• dedicated leased line connection with a dialup backup link
• Frame Relay connection with a DSL backup link
• DSL VPN connection with a dialup backup link
• ATM connection with a DSL VPN backup link
• DSL connection with no backup link
8.      Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
• interface fa0/0, inbound
• interface fa0/0, outbound
• interface fa0/1, inbound
• interface fa0/1, outbound
9.      Refer to the exhibit. The server broadcasts an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what is the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 contains the broadcast and replies with the MAC address of the next-hop router.
• Switch_A replies with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B continuously flood the message onto the network.
• Switch_B forwards the broadcast request and replies with the Router_1 address.
10.   What are two best practices in wireless LAN design to ensure secure wireless access to the corporate network? (Choose two.)
• Configure APs for broadcast SSID.
• Place APs as far apart as possible.
• Use a separate WLAN for employees.
• Configure WPA.
• Use wireless routers in all IDFs.
11.   In a well-designed, high-availability network, which device significantly affects the most users if a failure occurs?
• desktop PC of the user
• large switch in the network core layer
• large switch in the network distribution layer
• small workgroup switch in the network access layer
12.   Which two statements are true regarding network convergence? (Choose two.)
• In a large network, using the EIGRP or OSPF routing protocols rather than RIPv2 may improve convergence time.
• Using STP at the core layer improves convergence time by allowing the use of redundant links between devices.
• Route summarization improves convergence time by minimizing the size of the routing table.
• A full mesh topology improves convergence time by allowing load balancing.
• ACLs can be configured to improve convergence time.
13.   Centralizing servers in a data center server farm can provide which benefit over a distributed server environment?
• It keeps client-to-server traffic local to a single subnet.
• Servers located in a data center require less bandwidth.
• It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.
• Server farms are not subject to denial of service attacks.
14.   Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the ACL shown have on network traffic, assuming that it is correctly applied to the interface?
• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 is denied.
• All TCP traffic is denied to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All Telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination is denied.
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network is denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network is denied to any other network.
15.  Which Cisco IOS function can be configured at the distribution layer to filter unwanted traffic and provide traffic management?
• virus protection
• spyware protection
• VPNs
• access control lists
16.   What kind of ACL inspects outbound UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic and allows inbound access only to traffic that belongs to these established sessions?
• dynamic ACL
• time-based ACL
• reflexive ACL
• lock and key ACL
17.   Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• summarizing routes from the access layer
• allowing end users to access the local network
• providing the gateway of last resort for core layer devices
• preserving bandwidth at the access layer by filtering network functions
• isolating network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer
• utilizing redundant links for load balancing to increase available bandwidth
18.   Refer to the exhibit. Which two devices are part of the access design layer? (Choose two.)
• Edge2
• ISP4
• BR4
• FC-AP
• FC-CPE-1
• FC-ASW-2
19.   What is true about implementing a centralized server farm topology?
• requires direct cabling from the MPOE to enhance the performance of servers
• requires the addition of high-capacity switches to each workgroup
• provides defined entry and exit points so that filtering and securing traffic is easier
• allows for placement of workgroup servers at the access layer
20.   Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped, but no other action is taken.
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down, and a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, but a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, and the mac-address table is updated.
21.  Which two considerations are valid when designing access layer security?(Choose two.)
• In a large wireless network, the most efficient method to secure the WLAN is MAC address filtering.
• DoS attacks are normally launched against end-user PCs and can be mitigated by installing personal firewalls on all company PCs.
• SSH is more secure than Telnet to administer network devices.
• Disabling unused ports on the switches helps prevent unauthorized access to the network.
• All Telnet passwords are at least 6 characters long.
22.  What address can be used to summarize only networks 172.16.0.0/24, 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, and 172.16.3.0/24?
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.254.0
23.  Which two items in a physical WLAN design can be identified through a site survey? (Choose two.)
• the types of antennas that are required
• the encryption techniques that are required
• the access point hardware that is required
• the different levels of access that are required
• the connection reliability that is required
24.   Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe the benefits of the network access layer design that is shown? (Choose two.)
• If host A sends a broadcast message, only hosts in VLAN10 receive the broadcast frame.
• If host A attempts to transmit data at the same time as another host, only hosts in VLAN10 are affected by the collision.
• Segmenting all voice traffic on a separate VLAN facilitates the implementation of QoS.
• VLANs improve network performance by facilitating the use of route summarization.
• VLANs at the access layer help guarantee network availability by facilitating load balancing.

25.   What are three ways to ensure that an unwanted user does not connect to a wireless network and view the data? (Choose three.)
• Disable SSID broadcasting.
• Configure filters to restrict IP addresses.
• Use authentication between clients and the wireless device.
• Use NetBIOS name filtering between clients and the wireless device.
• Configure strong encryption such as WPA.
• Use a WEP compression method.

Activity Validate choice of VPN Topology, Devices, and topologies

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CCNA Discovery 4 Module 3 Exam Answers 4.0

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CCNA Discovery 4 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design Requirements Document?
• Project Goal
• Project Scope
• Technical Requirements
• Current State of the Network

2. Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of a router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)
• amount of NVRAM installed
• model number of the router
• number of interfaces and installed HWICs
• installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
• error statistics for each interface

3. Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS version for an upgrade? (Choose three.)
• processor ID
• interface type
• amount of DRAM
• bootstrap version
• device make and model
• size of system flash memory

4. What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a router? (Choose two.)
• Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
• Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.
• Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
• Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
• Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely

5. The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is hotswappable. What does this mean?
• The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge could damage the card.
• The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.
• The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.
• The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is replacing.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
• One connected device has router capability.
• The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
• None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.
• Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
• Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
• The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.

8. An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which command performs this task?
• copy tftp flash
• copy flash run
• copy start tftp
• copy flash tftp
• copy tftp start

9. Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to run this Cisco IOS image?
• There is not enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
• There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.

10. Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
• identify coverage areas
• determine primary AP locations
• determine what AP equipment should be purchased
• determine how many users will access the WLAN
• identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
• Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
• Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.
• Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the DMZ.
• Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
• Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.

12. A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of the router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?
• processor type
• storage space in NVRAM
• interfaces and modules to be supported
• compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software

13. An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area. Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
• type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
• number of users in the area
• location of the AP
• list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
• number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
• location of walls and filing cabinets in the office

14. The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
• number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
• routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
• size of DRAM and flash on each device
• routers that will support HWICs and VWICs
• system bootstrap version on each router and switch
• modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS

15. A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What could be the problem?
• There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
• The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
• The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
• The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
• The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined from the output shown?
• The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.
• The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
• The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.
• The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.

17. A production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be determined? (Choose three.)
• POST occurred normally.
• The boot process was interrupted.
• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
• A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.
• The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

18. During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from radiating out into the parking lot?
• change the channel on the wireless AP
• connect the wireless AP to a firewall
• change the type of antenna attached to the AP
• move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
• move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch

19. A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this phase of the project?
• eliminate the need for a site survey
• shorten the timeframe of the project
• lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
• determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
• To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new

20. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
• version
• file format
• feature set
• hardware platform

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
• R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
• R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
• The version of the IOS is 12.3.
• Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
• A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.

22. During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak usage and the estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what step of the site survey process?
• the defining of customer requirements
• the identification of coverage areas
• the determining of preliminary AP locations
• the measurement of signal strength

23. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)
• The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
• There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
• Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
• The copy command was incorrectly entered.
• The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.

24. In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network consulting team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers, provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?
• network requirements
• project scope
• overall project goal
• state of the network

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 2 Exam Answers 4.0

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CCNA Discovery 4 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to determine whether the existing network infrastructure can support the desired new features. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

2. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy is usually completed before an organization issues a Request For Proposal (RFP) or Request For Quotation (RFQ)?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

3. What is the purpose of SNMP?
• to facilitate the exchange of information between devices and the NMS
• to monitor and control managed network devices
• to report user logins to a monitoring station
• to verify traffic throughout the network and keep a log of all activity

4. During an analysis of a customer network, several possible opportunities for network improvement are identified. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services does this process occur?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Optimize Phase
• Operate Phase

5. What provides the initial data for the Optimize Phase?
• performance monitoring
• business goals
• technical goals
• RFP

6. Which two statements are true regarding the response to an RFQ?(Choose two.)
• The response should be brief.
• it should strictly conform to the formatting requirements specified by the RFQ.
• Only the items that the contracting company will be addressing should be answered.
• The response helps the customer compare pricing with other potential contractors.
• The response is more complicated than a response to a RFP.

7. What are two disadvantages of using a bottom-up approach instead of a top-down approach to network design? (Choose two.)
• It can result in an inappropriate network design.
• A new design cannot be implemented right away.
• It does not take into account the business goals of the company.
• This approach is not commonly practiced and is therefore not as well known.
• It requires tedious and time-consuming meetings with the customer to develop an understanding of the organization.

8. What is a business constraint that may impact the WAN design of a company?
• company policy regarding specific operating systems on LAN devices
• current monitoring protocols implemented on end-user devices
• non-availability of end users during implementation
• company policy requiring the use of specific vendor networking equipment due to partnerships

9. What is the purpose of preparing a business case?
• to justify the financial investment in implementing the technology change
• to provide an example of a previous job done in the RFP
• to define the technical requirements of the network
• to define timelines and critical milestones

10. What is the purpose of creating a prioritized list of technical requirements?
• defines the project scope
• determines the business profitability
• creates a feasibility report for analysis
• identifies existing and new user groups

11. A network engineer is analyzing the network of a potential client company to identify problems and determine whether a network upgrade or addition is needed. Which role in the sales team is this engineer assuming?
• post-sales field engineer
• pre-sales engineer
• account manager
• network designer

12. Which two statements best describe the responsibilities of an account manager? (Choose two.)
acts as the primary point of contact between the company and the client
• directs the sales teams and support personnel
• provides technical support to critical clients
• selects the equipment and technologies to be used for the client solution
• acts as the network design lead

13. What is the purpose of system-level acceptance testing?
• To develop an installation plan for the newly designed network
• to train end users and support personnel on the newly installed network
• to check that the newly installed network meets the business goals and design requirements
• to justify the financial investment required to implement the technology change

14. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?
• It provides a statistical average for network performance.
• It manages the performance of network devices.
• It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.
• It checks the security configuration of network devices.

15. When should a network baseline be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle Services?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase

16. What are two benefits of using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach to network design? (Choose two.)
• incorporates organizational requirements
• allows for a quick response to a design request
• requires less time up front to create a network design
• clarifies design goals from the perspective of applications and network solutions
• facilitates a design by using devices and technologies that are based on previous experience

17. Which software component is installed on network devices that are managed through SNMP?
• management agents
• management stations
• network management protocol
• Management Information Base (MIB)

18. A network engineer working for a contracting company is informed of a pre-bid meeting with a potential client. What purpose does the network engineer have for attending the pre-bid meeting?
• to submit request for proposal responses
• to discuss proposed installation and monitoring plans
• to perform system-level acceptance tests on the current network
• to clarify project scope and timelines not included in the original request for proposal
• to create a business case outlining reasons for financial investment in a network upgrade

19. A major corporation has decided to hire someone to upgrade their network infrastructure. A network consulting company wants the job. What document must the network consulting company obtain to learn about the business goals, the project scope, the requirements for the new network and the expected deliverables?
• Business Case
• Project Plan
• Request for Proposal
• Request for Comments

20. A corporation (client) wants a network upgrade and is putting out a request for services to various network consulting companies (contractors). A RFQ is required. Which statement is true concerning the RFQ?
• sent from the contractors to the client in response to a RFP
• sent from the client to the contractors along with the RFP to provide more specific technical details
• sent from the client to the contractors in place of a RFP when the technical specifications of a project are known
• sent from the contractors to the client outlining reasons for financial investments for the network upgrade

21. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services involves proactive management to identify and resolve issues before the organization is affected?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

22. Why is it important to prioritize business goals when developing network design?
• to ensure that the least expensive technologies are implemented first
• to simplify the configuration, administration, and monitoring of the newly installed network
• to anticipate the effects of changes and growth of the business
• to adhere to the best opportunities to contribute to the success of the business

23. Which two items help identify business goals and priorities before a new network project starts? (Choose two.)
• installation
• motivation
• profitability
• trustworthiness
• customer satisfaction

24. A network engineer working for ABC company is writing a response to an RFP for a network upgrade and must create an executive summary. Which statement describes the basic components of an executive summary?
• quick overview of the problem, the recommended solution, and the justification for ABC company doing the job
• detailed description of the solution, including but not limited to, timelines, turnover schedule, warranty information, and emergency recovery information
• detailed description of costs including, the cost of software and hardware components, licensing requirements, labor cost, and other applicable fees
• multiple page document containing additional information such as detailed lists of equipment required, diagrams, company background information, and insurance coverage

25. In a network management architecture, which statement best describes a management agent?
• communication protocol used between a management station and managed device
• standardized database that a device keeps about itself concerning network performance parameters
• host with the management application loaded that is used by the administrator to monitor and configure network devices
• software running on a managed device to collect network information and allow that device to be managed by a management station

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 4 Exam Answers 4.0

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CCNA Discovery 4 Module 4 Exam Answers
Version 4.0

1. In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of a network installation?
• final project costs
• maintenance costs
• user satisfaction
• statistics describing the performance of network devices

2. Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose two.)
• IP telephony
• live video webcasts
• audio file downloads
• online banking services
• file archival and retrieval

3. What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
• NBAR
• NetFlow
• AutoQoS
• Wireshark
• Custom Queuing

4. In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its importance and technical requirements?
• STP
• QoS
• RTP
• TCP
• VPN

5. What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)
• Voice packets tend to be small.
• Voice packets must be processed in real time.
• Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.
• Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.
• Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.
• Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.

6. What are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• Survey end users to obtain customer input.
• Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.
• Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.
• Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.
• Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory configurations

7. A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing voice traffic.
• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.
• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.

8. Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)
• firewalls
• priority queuing
• access control lists
• intrusion detection systems
• DHCP
• 128-bit WEP

9. The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)
• voice-enabled firewall
• PoE switches and patch panels
• redundant backbone connectivity
• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented

10. When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose two.)
• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.

11. What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?
• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability

12. When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
• define QoS policies
• define traffic classes
• determine traffic patterns
• identify traffic requirements
• identify networking equipment

13. Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• RTP should be used.
• Traffic is predictable.
• Packets are small in size.
• Transfers are throughput intensive.
• Response-time requirements are low.

14. Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
• the type of ISP services needed
• the capabilities of end-user devices
• the areas where network congestion may occur
• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required

15. Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.

16. Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?
• network planning and mapping
• IDS and IPS capabilities
• peak usage times and traffic routing
• network billing and accounting application
• security and user account restrictions
• source and destination UDP port mapping

17. Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
• high
• normal
• medium
• default

18. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• queue traffic definitions
• priority list protocol assignments
• type of queuing being implemented
• number of packets placed in each queue
• queuing defaults that have been changed
• queuing has not been applied to this interface

19. An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these protocols?
• IDS
• VPN
• WLAN
• firewall
• real-time video

20. A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
• PoE switches must be purchased.
• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the bottom?
• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1

22. A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

23. What is the primary goal of QoS?
• classification of traffic
• filtering and queuing voice traffic
• reducing bandwidth requirements
• providing priority service to selected traffic

24. Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
• ToS
• CoS
• DSCP
• IP precedence

25. A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card account will be debited accordingly?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two protocols would be needed to provide the support? (Choose two.)
• HDLC
• HSRP
• PPP
• RSTP
• VTP

27. network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
• RTCP
• HSRP
• RSTP
• RTP
• RPC

28. Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
• manages phones centrally
• utilizes centralized call routing
• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones

29. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve performance? (Choose two.)
• link speed
• delay
• packet routing
• jitter
• packet addressing

Labskill 8.5.1 Configuring ACLs and Verifying with Console Logging

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Step 1: Connect the equipment

  1. Connect the Serial 0/0/0 interface of Router 1 to the Serial 0/0/0 interface of Router 2 using a serial cable.
  2. Connect the Fa0/0 interface of Router 1 to the Fa0/1 port on Switch 1 using a straight-through cable.
  3. Connect Host 1 to the Fa0/3 port on Switch 1 using a straight-through cable.
  4. Connect Host 2 to the Fa0/2 port on Switch 1 using a straight-through cable.
  5. Connect the Discovery Server to the Fa0/0 interface of Router 2 using a crossover cable.

Step 2: Perform basic configuration on Router 1

Step 3: Perform basic configuration on Router 2

Step 4: Perform basic configuration on Switch 1

Step 5: Configure the hosts with the proper IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway

a. Configure each host with the proper IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

1) Host 1 should be assigned 192.168.1.5 /24 and the default gateway of 192.168.1.1.

2) Host 2 should be assigned 192.168.1.6 /24 and the default gateway of 192.168.1.1.

3) The server should be assigned 172.17.1.1 and a default gateway of 172.17.0.1.

b. Each host should be able to ping the other hosts

Step 6: Configure and apply ACLs

ACLs will be configured to control what services Hosts 1 and 2 can access from the server.

Step 7: Reflection

  1. What is an advantage of using the logging option on an ACL versus the information provided by the show access-lists command? Jawaban:  The logging option gives you more detailed information about what the access list is doing.
  2. What is a major concern of enabling the logging feature of an access control list?Jawaban: The amount of router resources that will be used to display the console messages.
  3. Would you normally log more than one line? Why or why not? Jawaban:   the ACL and what you are trying to do with it. If there are two lines that you think are not working exactly right, you would log those two lines.
  4. If the network is not performing as expected (e.g. routing updates not occurring, name resolution not occurring) which ACL statement would you log? Jawaban: In this case, log the deny ip any any statement to see what packets are being blocked that should not be. It may be necessary to alter the ACL statements to accommodate this traffic.

Labskill 8.4.5 Configuring and Verifying ACLs to filter Inter-VLAN Traffic

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Step 1: Connect the equipment

a. Connect the Fa0/0 interface of Router 1 to the Fa0/1 port of Switch 1 using a straight-through cable.

b. Connect PCs with console cables to perform configurations on the router and switch.

c. Connect the host PCs with straight-through cables to the following switch ports: Host 1, to Fa0/2;

Host 2, to Fa0/5; Host 3, to Fa0/8.

Step 2: Perform basic configuration on Router 1

Step 3: Configure R1 to support inter-VLAN traffic

The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on R1 will be subinterfaced to route traffic from each of the three VLANs. Each subinterface IP address will become the default gateway for its designated VLAN.

Step 4: Perform basic configuration on Switch 1

Step 5: Create, name, and assign ports to three VLANs on S1

This network contains one VLAN for the server farm and two VLANs for user groups.

Why is it good practice to place the server farm in a separate VLAN?

Step 6: Create the trunk on S1

Enter the following command to establish interface Fa0/1 as a trunk port:

Step 7: Configure the hosts

Configure each host with the proper IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway according to the

addressing table.

Step 8: Verify that the network is functioning

a. From each attached host, ping the other two hosts and each of the router sub-interface IP addresses.

Were the pings successful? Jawaban: yes

If the answer is no, troubleshoot the router, switch and host configurations to find the error.

b. From the switch S1, ping the router default gateway 192.168.1.1.

Were the pings successful? Jawaban: yes

Step 9: Configure, apply, and test an Extended ACL to filter inter-VLAN traffic

Members of the Users1 VLAN should not be able to reach the server farm, but members of the other VLAN should be able to reach each other and the router. Users1 should be able to reach VLANs other than the server farm.

Step 10: Reflection

  1. Why is it good practice to perform and verify basic and VLAN-related configurations before creating and applying an ACL? Jawaban: Problems can be traced to the syntax and placement of the ACL.
  2. What results would have been produced if the ACL had been placed on subinterface FastEthernet 0/0.3 going out and PC2 pinged PC3?Jawaban: Because the ping packets would first be switched to FastEthernet 0/0.4 and then be forwarded out to the PC3, the ACL would have no effect. Pings from PC2 to the servers would succeed.

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